The media are reporting that Karla Homolka will soon be eligible for a pardon under existing legislation. Nobody has suggested that they have information that she intends to apply. I do not know whether it's a given that she would get a pardon if she did apply. Nonetheless, a majority of the members of the House of Commons have agreed, apparently, to expedite passage of the portion of part of Bill C-23 that deals with pardons and changes the existing federal law (The Criminal Records Act) with the intention, apparently, of making it more difficult for Homolka to qualify.The Globe and Mail report is here.
I assume - I haven't read the new provisions and it's been years since I did anything more than glance at the current - that under the new legislation H has less than the proverbial snowball's chance of getting a pardon in the immediate future.
The politics of the play are obvious, as are the good intentions of the MPs. But, there's that proverb about what the road to hell is paved with.
The lawyer in me wonders whether the Tories, in their grandstanding, and the other MPs, in their rush to judgment, have received advice from lawyer(s) competent to give that advice that the legislation is constitutional, under the Charter, to the extent that it purports to alter, to their detriment, the eligibility for pardon of persons convicted of Criminal Code crimes prior to the passage of the proposed legislation? Bear in mind that, had the Criminal Code changed to her detriment after Homolka committed her crimes, she'd have been tried under the law criminal law as it was. Is "pardon law" a part of the criminal law for that purpose? The fact that deals with a criminal record suggests there's an argument it is. If it is, then isn't Homolka entitled to pardon eligibility under the law as it was when she was convicted (or new law if it's better for her, but that's not the case.)
The heinous nature of what she did doesn't entitle the current gov't and the rest of the MPs who are onside with it to knee-jerk in a way that's unconstitutional. Her acts were heinous. But that doesn't entitle the state to act unconstitutionally. There is something called the "Rule of Law" that even the current gov't is bound by, even when they don't like it.
But, if the proposed legislation isn't constitutional on the basis that it's contrary to the Charter - say s. 7 - and can't be saved by s. 1, and there isn't a notwithstanding clause, does that mean Homolka would have a s. 224 action against the Crown for damages?
Or does the gov't intend to use the Charter's notwithstanding provision just in case?
I don't know the better (or even correct) answers to any of this. It's not my bailiwick. Perhaps I've missed something that means the problem I've raised doesn't exist.
Perhaps one of the members of this blog (or another reader with the required expertise) is in a position to comment.
Candidly, nothing I've seen in the conduct of the current party in power, or its members antics while in the oppostion makes me confident that the gov't has adequately considered the legal issues. I'd like to be wrong. about that. I'd also like to win Friday's $50 million lottery. (Yes, I 've bought a ticket.)
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